During my university law course in England, this case was used to show that a lawful seller could be liable under IP law if a future seller might confuse a future buyer of the origin of the goods.

This rationale behind the judgement seemed strange to me and I have wrote a little on my blog about this case. I was wondering if you might have a look at what I have written and let me know whether you think I have understood the case properly and what you think about my views.

My blog is at http://richiej6.blogspot.com. I have only just started it so it is a little rough round the edges at the moment!

Thanks, I look forward to hearing your views.

Richard